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[answered] 1. Rules of evidence control the A. amount of evidence that

i need some help with medical coder 150?multiple questions answers please.i am attaching the question .thank you

1. Rules of evidence control the A. amount of evidence that may be admitted during a civil trial. B. documents that can be considered during jury trial. C. length of criminal court proceedings, but not civil court proceedings. D. processes and procedures for question and answer sessions.


2. Which of the following statements is true of the Affordable Care Act? A. It includes a provision for military service members who served in Afghanistan. B. It makes it mandatory for patients to carry health insurance. C. It offers parents supplementary coverage for dependents with chronic illness. D. It requires health care facilities to maintain health records for at least 10 years.


3. A coder would assign a Q code as a temporary code for A. procedures or services only. B. holistic treatments for spinal procedures. C. procedures, services, and supplies. D. durable medical equipment only.


4. The Outpatient Prospective Payment System (OPPS) pays A. subsidies to contain health care costs in rural facilities. B. 65% of the schedule C rate for all surgeries. C. an established rate for outpatient services in specific hospitals. D. a percentage of the national average for the same surgery performed in a different geographic location.


5. Bones inside the nose are called A. turbinates. B. ethmoids. C. maxillae. D. septal mucosa.


6. The root word OBSTETR/O means A. birth. B. cesarean. C. midwife. D. pregnancy.


7. Which of the following procedures would be performed to treat prostate cancer? A. Vasoconstriction B. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) C. Meniscectomy D. Arthroscopy


8. Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of A. endoplasmic reticulum. B. extracellular matrix. C. columnar epithelial cells. D. endocrine gland cells.


9. A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second?degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician


sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD?10?CM and CPT codes would be assigned? A. T31.50, 99291, 99292 ? 4 B. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 ? 2 C. R53.81, 99291, 99293 ? 5 D. L91.8, 99291 ? 2, 99292 ? 4 10. Another name for XXY syndrome is A. Turner's syndrome. B. Cooley's anemia. C. Klinefelter syndrome. D. Huntington's chorea.


11. The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called A. microbiology. B. cytopathology. C. histopathology. D. immunology.


12. The suffix ?centesis means A. calculus or stone. B. abnormal condition. C. separation, breakdown, destruction. D. a surgical puncture for fluid removal.


13. The retention period is the amount of time that A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets. B. HIM employee files must be retained upon termination or resignation. C. records must be kept. D. medications must be kept in the medical office.


14. Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the _______ system. A. UCR B. prospective payment C. retrospective payment D. capitation


15. Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes A. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers. B. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only. C. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments. D. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.


16. Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve? A. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body. B. It's found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors. C. It's susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie's disease. D. It's located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart. 17. A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also


obtains a chest x?ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD?10 and CPT codes are assigned? A. 99202, D63.1, J45.909 B. 99213, R06.82, F10.229 C. 99215, M19.011, R13.10 D. 99203, J06.9, R59.0


18. A patient is diagnosed with severe sepsis and septic shock after experiencing a severe


drop in blood pressure. What ICD?10?CM code would be assigned? A. R65.10 B. R65.21 C. T81.12 D. T79.4


19. Another name for third?party contractors who have access to medical information is A. business associates. B. covered entities. C. healthcare vendors. D. insurance administrators.


20. A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD?10?CM code would be assigned? A. L72.3 B. L70.0 C. L73.1 D. L74.2 21. According to HIPAA, a patient's information may be released for A. paternity testing. B. determining premiums based on a patient's past medical history. C. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations. D. research.


22. According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage? A. $36.0666 B. $34.5741 C. $28.8457 D. $32.4726


23. What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law? A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician's discretion. B. The Supreme Court's decision becomes final in binding arbitration. C. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law. D. State laws overrule federal law.


24. Prescribing combination drugs that contain multiple medications to cut down on the number of pills


patients take on a daily basis A. increases the likelihood of compliance. B. compounds the drugs' effectiveness. C. supports good body function. D. decreases the frequency of drug interactions. 25. A 55?year?old patient was injured while working as a carpenter on a construction site. While framing the roof of a two?story house, he fell and hit his head. He was diagnosed with a concussion to the left side of his head, and underwent a right frontal parietal craniotomy with removal of a subdural hematoma. During the patient's period of recovery, he was given a medication that resulted in a rash on his abdomen. The physician


conducted an expanded problem focused history and exam, with straightforward medical decision making. What CPT code(s) should be assigned? A. 99292, 99291 B. 99251 C. 99253 D. 99252


26. Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the _______ system. A. sensory B. endocrine C. circulatory D. digestive


27. Which modifier indicates a staged or related procedure performed during the postoperative period? A. ?54 B. ?59 C. ?57 D. ?58 28. What is the CPT code for a three?view x?ray of the mandible? A. 70200 B. 70240 C. 70150 D. 70100


29. The code for an ESWL would be found in the A. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT. B. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS. C. Digestive System of CPT. D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.


30. A patient is seen in follow?up two weeks after undergoing cholecystectomy. During the follow?up examination, the physician notes that the abdominal wound has not yet healed. The patient undergoes a split?thickness autograft due to a nonhealing left lower abdominal wound that's 10 square centimeters. Which CPT and ICD?10?CM codes would be assigned? A. 15200, L85.64 B. 15350, L52.64 C. 15250, L34.74 D. 15100, L76.82


31. A physician creates an opening in the kidney and inserts a catheter to drain urine. This procedure is called a A. nephrostomy. B. nephrological analysis. C. nephrectomy. D. nephrotomy.


32. The hammer?shaped bone in the middle ear is called the A. cochlea. B. malleus. C. stapes. D. incus.


33. Electronic documents with a standard preset format are called A. archives. B. templates. C. cloned documents. D. cache documents.


34. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion,


pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD?


10?CM codes are assigned? A. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909 B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909 C. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919 D. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929


35. The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as A. protected personnel. B. health care administrators. C. covered entities. D. provisional health care data collectors.


36. A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of postnasal drip, frequent nosebleeds, headaches, and difficulty breathing. She is diagnosed with a deviated nasal septum, hypertrophy of the turbinate, and inflammation of the ethmoid sinuses. The physician performs an endoscopic ethmoidectomy of the left nasal sinus, septoplasty, and turbinate excision. What ICD?10?CM and CPT codes are assigned? A. 31255?LT, 30520?51, 30130?51, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 B. 31255, 30520, 30130, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 C. 31230, 30520, J34.2, J34.3, J32.2 D. 31230?51, 30520?LT, J34.2


37. The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT? A. 33437?33537 B. 33533?33799 C. 33200?33205 D. 33202?33273


38. An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient's artery has dilated. The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an A. benign tumor. B. cyst. C. aneurysm. D. mesenteric venous thrombosis.


39. What is the code for excision of Meckel's diverticulum? A. 44800 B. 44820 C. 44850 D. 44700


40. A female patient is diagnosed with breast cancer of the lower?inner quadrant of the right breast. The patient undergoes a modified radical mastectomy of the right breast in an


attempt to circumvent the spread of the cancer to any secondary anatomical sites. The procedure was performed in three stages. In addition to the radical mastectomy, the physician also performed a right breast biopsy to treat the breast tumor in the lower?inner quadrant. What ICD?10?CM and CPT codes are assigned? A. 19307?RT, 19101?RT, C50.211 B. 19307?58?RT, 19101?59?RT, C50.311 C. 11602, 15240, C50.312 D. 15852?58, Z48.01


41. The outcome of delivery code should be A. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records. B. assigned to the newborn record only. C. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs. D. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery.


42. Codes for plastic repair of the perineum are found in which code range? A. 57000?57010 B. 56800?56810 C. 57150?57180 D. 57000?57426


43. What is the CPT code description for 64483? A. Injection, anesthetic agent, sphenopalatine ganglion B. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, single level C. Transforaminal epidural injection under ultrasound guidance D. Injection(s) anesthetic agent and/or steroid, transforaminal epidural, with imaging guidance (fluoroscopy or CT); lumbar or sacral, multiple levels 44. The HIPAA Privacy Rule indicates that A. practitioners should disclose only the minimum amount of health information necessary for the purpose of the disclosure. B. restrictions on information disclosure exist only for patients with life?threatening illnesses. C. physicians may release medical information at their own discretion. D. the level of information disclosure permitted is based on the nature of the procedure. 45. The prefix sub? means A. above. B. lateral. C. horizontal. D. under.


46. Another name for Medicare Advantage is A. Medicare Part A. B. Medicare Part D. C. Medicare Part C. D. Medicare Part B.


47. The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre?paid basis is called A. pre?paid care. B. managed care. C. fee?for?service. D. capitation.


48. Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows A. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff. B. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions. C. lawyer?to?lawyer mediation during trial recess. D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.


49. What CPT code would be assigned for a colpocentesis? A. 57020 B. 57859 C. 57135 D. 57600


50. Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in A. Lotus 1?2?3. B. PowerPoint. C. Word. D. Excel. 51. A patient who has paralysis of all four limbs is called A. quadriplegic. B. paraplegic. C. tetraplegic. D. hemiplegic.


52. The portion of health insurance that an insured pays before he or she is entitled to receive benefits from an insurance plan is called the A. deductible. B. capitation. C. OPPS reimbursement. D. coinsurance.


53. A health care practitioner who knowingly submits false statements to obtain federal health care reimbursement is guilty of A. Medicaid omission. B. Health Insurance Privacy and Portability misuse. C. DHS claim misrepresentation. D. Medicare fraud. 54. Data stored in a health care facility must A. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely. B. conform to the physician's expectations for data storage. C. adhere to OIG policies and procedures. D. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange.


55. A 65?year?old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under A. Medicare Part A. B. Medicare Part B. C. Medicare Part C. D. Medicare Part D.


56. A female patient is seen for her annual gynecological examination. During the examination, the physician performs a test to detect cervical cancer. This test is called a/an A. mycobacterial culture. B. carcinoembryonic antigen test. C. immunoassay test. D. Pap smear. 57. The largest salivary glands are called the _______ glands. A. submandibular B. amylase C. parotid D. sublingual 58. The suffix ?stasis means A. kinetic. B. breakdown. C. stopping and controlling. D. flow.


59. Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis? A. Metatarsal B. Septum C. Diaphragm D. Tibia 60. A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it's administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first?listed diagnosis? A. The anesthesia administration B. The observation code C. The allergy code D. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed


61. A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned? A. A4751 ? 2 B. A4751 C. A4918 ? 2 D. A4918 62. To calculate fees under the RBRVS system, Medicare devised a formula that takes into account A. services, geographic location, and a national conversion factor (CF). B. physician locale, length of time spent in surgery, and available health care personnel. C.national conversion rate, physician insurance premium, and similar surgeries performed in the same hospital. D. geography, surgical points allocated, and hospital case mix.


63. If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can A. complete employee paperwork. B. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records. C. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records. D. also fulfill requests for prescription data. 64. What is the code description for 65101?LT? A. Enucleation of eye, without implant, performed on the left side of the body B. Biopsy of cornea performed on the lower third of the cornea C. Removal of ocular implant performed laterally D. Fine needle aspiration of orbital contents on the left third of the orbit


65. Businesses that provide support services, like administration, to individual physicians


are called A. physician?hospital organizations. B. management services organizations. C. integrated provider organizations. D. medical foundations. 66. Categorically needy and medically needy patients may qualify for A. Medicare Advantage. B. Champus. C. Medicaid. D. CHAMPVA.


67. A patient has a Foley catheter inserted prior to a planned surgical procedure. How is this coded? A. 52601 B. 52630 C. 51702 D. 55520 68. A physician who cares for a patient throughout an entire pregnancy, from beginning to end, is providing A. puerperal obstetric care. B. routine global obstetric care. C. antenatal global supervision. D. comprehensive prenatal management.


69. A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. It's determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called A. pancreatolysis. B. pancreaticoduodonal arcade. C. pancreatonia. D. pancreatitis.


70. A qualifying circumstance indicates a A. condition that reduces the average recovery time for a particular type of surgery. B. situation that may extend a patient's length of stay in the hospital setting. C. condition that impacts the outcome of surgery. D. situation that makes anesthesia administration more difficult.


71. Superficial injuries such as abrasions or contusions are A. coded when associated with more severe injuries of the same site. B. not coded when associated with more severe injuries of the same site. C. coded only when debridement is performed. D. queried to determine if the injuries are confined to the same site.


72. During a routine examination, a male patient is diagnosed with an elevated PSA. The


physician performs a biopsy of the prostate with a rectal ultrasound to pinpoint the source of the problem. Which CPT and ICD?10?CM codes would be assigned? A. 55700, 76872?26, R97.2 B. 55725, 76000?26, R93.6 C. 55734, 73200?26, R97.2 D. 55720, 74000?26, R97.3


73. Which one of the following statements accurately represents the practice known as unbundling? A. Codes listed as separate procedures are assigned individually. B. Codes that should be grouped into one code are broken into separate codes to maximize physician reimbursement. C. ICD?10?PCS codes are broken into separate codes for congruent assignment. D. Combination codes are assigned separately in ICD?10?CM.


74. The covering on the brain and spinal cord in the dorsal cavity is called the A. meninges. B. ganglia. C. sheath. D. peritoneum.


75. Under HIPAA, health care facilities must A. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a three?


month timeframe. B. maintain a clean, safe working environment. C. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for mandatory services. D. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and procedures.


76. The study of disease is called A. physiology. B. neurology. C. urology. D. pathology. 77. A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned? A. 99292, 99292, 99293 B. 99291, 99292 C. 99292, 99293 D. 99291, 99291


78. The process of removing tissue for histopathology is called A. debridement. B. excision. C. shaving. D. biopsy.


79. The Female Genital System subsection covers which CPT code range? A. 56300?56499 B. 56607?56809 C. 56203?56303 D. 56405?58999


80. The _______ nerve sends visual data to the occipital lobe of the brain. A. optic B. trochlear C. oculomotor D. abducens 81. When coding burns, coders should A. assign the code for chronic burns. B. assign separate codes for each burn site. C. assign the code for third?degree burns. D. classify all burns as acute burns.


82. The voluntary program that's financed through a combination of payments from general federal revenues and premiums paid by beneficiaries who elect to participate is called A. TRICARE. B. Medicare Part B. C. Medicaid. D. CHAMPVA.


83. The abbreviation INH indicates what route of drug administration? A. Inhaled and intravenous administration B. Inhaled and intrathecal administration C. Inhalant solution D. Intrathecal injection 84. A patient comes to the emergency room after having dinner at a restaurant, where she


began to experience chest tightness during the meal. She is seen for a cardiology consultation in the outpatient setting for a diagnosis of chest tightness. Which CPT and ICD?10?CM codes would be assigned? A. 99244, R07.59 B. 99243, R25.96 C. 99242, R17.52 D. 99245, R07.89


85. What diagnosis code would be assigned for a patient diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy? A. E11.21 B. E11.01 C. E11.9 D. E11.22


86. The foramen ovale is found in which anatomical location? A. Liver B. Heart C. Pancreas D. Fibula


87. Anti?inflammatory drugs applied to the skin to relieve skin disorders are called A. topical corticosteroids. B. astringents. C. keratolytics. D. antiseptics. 88. The concept of meaningful use pertains to A. electronic health record implementation. B. medical office protocol and document organization. C. categorization of patient information. D. resource management in the inpatient setting.


89. Adding codes not substantiated by the medical record and assigning separate codes to services that should be bundled into one code are considered to be A. permissible under special coding circumstances. B. authorized to maximize physician reimbursement. C. modifiable according to current CCI coding edits. D. fraud and abuse of the health care reimbursement system.


90. The ampulla, isthmus, interstitium, and fimbria are examples of A. bones in the ankle. B. membranes in the abdomen. C. implantation sites of ectopic pregnancy. D. incision sites for pacemaker insertion.


91. The concept of confidentiality can be substantiated based on the right of A. totality. B. easement. C. constitutionality. D. privacy. 92. In relation to HIPAA regulations regarding the manner in which information can be disclosed, which of the following statements is true? A. Protected health information must be disclosed only when the patient is unable to


testify in a court proceeding. B. Protected health information may be disclosed in a judicial or administrative proceeding if the request is made through an order from a court or administrative tribunal. C. Protected health information may never be disclosed. D. Protected health information may be disclosed only within a deposition. 93. What ICD?10?CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule?interstitial nephritis? A. Z02.6 B. L50.0 C. B96.2 D. N10


94. What ICD?10?CM code would be assigned for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the


right hip? A. M16.30 B. M16.11 C. M16.10 D. M16.12


95. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) standards were developed to A. protect patient confidentiality when health information is transferred electronically. B. ensure that coders could easily access each medical record. C. determine the structure of insurance carrier payments for health care practitioners. D. define XLTM standards for health records management.


96. Which modifier indicates the decision for surgery? A. ?57 B. ?32 C. ?74 D. ?82


97. A patient receives an injection of nandrolone decanoate. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned? A. J2320 B. J3530 C. J2323 D. J2300


98. If a physician provides preoperative management only to a patient prior to surgery, which modifier would be added to the surgery code? A. ?44 B. ?91 C. ?56 D. ?32 99. What CPT code range is used to code for a limited lymphadenectomy? A. 38700?38780 B. 39501?39599 C. 38562?38564 D. 37501?37650


100. A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient's medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned? A. B4278 B. B4125 C. B4034 D. B4072


101. Health care practitioners must maintain records of privacy policy practices and procedures for A. 10 months. B. 2 years. C. 6 years. D. 20 years.


102. A patient is prescribed a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication is most likely a A. vasoconstrictor. B. tranquilizer. C. cardiotonic. D. cardiogenic. 103. What is the ICD?10?CM code for unspecified acute pericarditis? A. I30.89 B. I30.79 C. I30.9 D. I30




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