1. A project change management plan covers which of the following areas:
A - Scope?
B - Schedule
C - Budget
D - All of the above
2. The document that defines the project, and authorizes the initiation and execution of the project is the:
A - Project Plan
B - Schedule
C - Project Charter
D - Issues Log
3. All of the following are characteristics of a project except:?
A-defined time frame
C-Well defined scope
D-Well Defined Stakeholders
4. A project failed sometime after a change in Project Management because organizational resources promised to the project were mistakenly diverted to another project. What would have been the best way to give the new PM a "heads-up" to remind the organization that the resources were reserved:
A - An assumption describing the arrangement ?in the Project Plan
B - A verbal reminder from the old PM during project transition
C - Paper notes written by the old PM scotch-taped to the resources
D - Asking someone on the project team to remember to tell the new PM
5. Choose the incorrect statement about a Project Methodology in an organization
A - All affected groups must agree to follow the methodology
B - There could be competing methodologies in the same organization
C - A group that creates a methodology must get buy-in from all other groups to make the methodology a success
D - An organization is more efficient with multiple project methodologies
6. Choose the item that is NOT part of Project Control:
A - Monitoring project progress
B - Making project corrections to get back on track
C - Regular status reports
D- Creating a Project Plan
7. All of the following are part of a project methodology except:?
A - Allowing stakeholders to change the methodology to add scope to the project
B - What to do in case of exceptions in any step of the methodology
C - Who is accountable for a particular step in the methodology
D - Exit criteria for a step in a ?methodology
8. Choose the scenario where a well thought out Project Organization Chart would add no value as a Project Control Enabler:
A - Involvement by all required groups in an organization leads to a better project plan where nothing is missed
B - If the chart included stakeholders who had no interest in the project (for or against)
C - Project staffing lends itself to organizational resource staffing analysis
D - Project team members can see their roles, which allows the project team to avoid redundant task
9. All of the following create opportunities for a project to go "off track" except:
A- Organizational changes which impact project resources
B - Self Interests of project stakeholders
C - Project team members in-attention to what is being completed
D - Project Manager managing project stakeholders
10. Choose the statement which best describes why Project Methodologies are Project Control Enablers:
A - Creating a unique methodology for each new project promotes diversity in the organization
B - Using a standard project methodology promotes accelerated project startup and allows re-use of previous project plans and schedules
C - Updating project methodologies to correct them for "past sins" gives the new project team an un-fair advantage to be more successful than the previous project teams
D - A methodology is an organizational reminder that it requires too much organizational discipline to bother with.
11. The following project sizes should have project control:
A - Small Projects with a budget of a few thousand dollars
B - Large projects with many external vendors
C - All of these?
D - Medium projects which involve only material purchases
12. The real value of a change management plan towards maintaining project control is:
A - It encourages project change
B - It provides a cumbersome process that discourages any form of change
C - It enables an efficient, repeatable change process that gets the project back on track as quick as possible
D - None of the above
13. ?All of the following are reasons for project teams to be made up of members who perform project roles except:
A - Project roles promote division of labor
B - Project roles funnel the right attention to all project areas
C - Project roles create an opportunity for the organization to train new project managers
D - Project roles concentrate expertise within specific roles
14. While monitoring the project progress, choose the item that the Project Manager is NOT looking for:
A - Deliverable completion
B - Scope Creep
C - Issue Resolution
D - Vendor Invoices for project purchases
15. The best justification for maintaining historical data as a project control enabler is:
A- If a similar project in the past was successful, then repeating past practices will maximize the possibility of current project success
B - It will save time during project startup because you have past project documents
C - It provides an audit trail to show that the past project failure was not the fault of the project team
D - It provides a record of past interactions with vendors
16. Industry best practices suggest that the likelihood of project success increases when which of the following are implemented:
A - Project Control Enablers
B - Deputy Project Managers
C - Approved Project Budgets?
D - Weekly status meetings
17. An effective project plan is one that:
A - Is in writing
B - Defines that project elements that will be measured as part of the control function
C - Was developed by the people who know the work that is part of the project
D - All of the above
18. The organizational desire to successfully use a PMIS must be preceded by all of the following except:
A - Groups which need to provide inputs to the PMIS must agree to do this up front
B - Set up of systems which maintain PMIS data
C - Validation of PMIS data as accurate and meaningful
D - Making access to the PMIS ?difficult ?because it contains financial data
19. The Project Charter is approved by:
A - The Project Manager
B - The functional managers who provide the project team members
C - The Organization's chief operating officer
D - Management outside of the project (including the sponsor)
20. A project whose performing organization was largely a 3rd party vendor went off-track early on over a disagreement which held up work for one month while the two parties tried to determine a process for resolving their disagreement. This could have been avoided if the contract had a:
A - Severability Clause
B - Appendix describing every conceivable contract dispute that might have occurred
C - Reference to previous legal proceedings which described similar circumstances
D - Dispute resolution process
21. What PMIS accounting function makes it possible to reserve project money for the month(s) following a project purchase, so the invoice can be paid?
A - Invoice?
B - Accrual
C - Purchase Order
D - Quote
22. Stakeholder Analysis is NOT a valid Project Control enabler when:
A-The Interests of the stakeholder might be threatened by the project
B-The probability of success of the project depends on how much the project enhances the interests of the stakeholders
C-Stakeholder analysis is only done at the start of the project
D-It acknowledges that negatively impacted Stakeholders will resist the completion of the project
23. The new PM on the project has noticed a discrepancy between the project schedule and the network chart on the dependencies between tasks on a project. ?What document could the PM use to resolve the differences?
A - The work packages for the tasks in question
D-The Project Charter
24. ?All of the following are benchmarked in a Project Plan except:
A - Schedule
B - Scope
C - Project team members
D - Budget?
25. Which of the following is a better project control tool than a Project Plan with milestones defined:
A - Project schedule with milestones separated by sub-tasks
B - Project schedule with resources assigned
C - A network chart
D - A Risk Management Plan
26. Which Earned Value reporting rule would be suitable for tracking progress of digging a hole for the foundation of a large building?
A - % Complete
B - Milestone
C - 0/100
D - Level of Effort
27. If a vacation was a project, and you purchase trip cancellation protection, this is an example of which type of Risk Response Planing category:
28. Project Roles are a Project Control Enabler because:
A - Individuals in project roles can provide early warning signs based on their "Role" point of view that a project is going off track
B - Responsibility over-laps between project roles create "dual coverage" opportunities
C - Team members performing in their "roles" will usually not contradict a potential solution from another team member that conflicts with the interest of their area of expertise.
D - They offer opportunities for individuals to perform multiple roles simultaneously, which reduces boredom of team members.?
29. The PM needs to decide to what level of granularity work packages should be defined, and then make sure what Project Control tool is aligned with ?this decision?
A - Project Schedule
B - WBS
C - Network Chart
D - Project Plan
30. Choose the correct statement comparing Analogous (Top Down) cost estimating methods to Bottom Up Cost Estimation
A - Analogous estimation is slower to develop than Bottom Up
B - Bottom Up estimation is more accurate than Analogous
C - Analogous is more costly than Bottom Up estimation
D - Bottom Up estimation is less accurate than Analogous?
31. In a non-Earned Value progress monitoring environment, choose the incorrect statement:
A - Schedule completion is monitored by "task % Complete"
B - Scope completion is monitored by tracking completed deliverables
C - Staying within budget is monitored by checking the PMIS report
D - None of the above
32. What characteristic of a non-Critical Path task makes it possible to delay the start of this task without affecting the duration of the Critical Path of the project?
A - Float
B - Latest Start
C - Earliest Start
D - Duration?
33. Building 10 widgets instead of the planned 5 during a monitoring interval would be represented on the Earned Value report as a:
A - Positive CV
B - Negative CV
C - Negative SV
D - Positive SV?
34. A manufacturing organization has a project to outsource its packing and shipping department.
The stakeholders are:
A - The manager of the existing packing and shipping department
B - The Vice President of the sales department, whose bonus is partially based on prompt delivery
C - The Production Line Foreman, whose annual performance goals include working efficiently with the packing and shipping organization
D - All of the above
35. ?An "Out of Scope" section in the Project Plan is the best way to avoid:
A- ?Project failure due to failed assumptions
B - Misunderstandings by the project clients at the end of the project as to what was or was not supposed to be part of the project
C - Budget over-runs?
D - Missed schedule milestones?
36. Choose the correct statement about Work Breakdown Structures:
A-A WBS is one of ?several ways ?to ensure that all project work is included
B-A WBS is used to define the work in a project and the sequence the work is done in
C-If a Subject Matter Expert is not available for one of the areas the project touches on, it is OK for the PM to develop the WBS for this area.
D-Every component of project scope needs a WBS element
37. A good reason to have the stakeholders specifically named in the Project Charter is:
A - They like to see their names in print
B - Doing so is a Project Control enabler
C - It accelerates stakeholder analysis (because analysis had to be done to find and identify the stakeholders)
D - To share the blame if the project fails
38. A good way to establish what is in scope and what is out of scope at the beginning of a project is to create a:
A - Project Closing report
B - Requirements document
C - Project Charter
D - Web Site for the project, and list the scope items
39. A building project requires a large amount of plywood sheaving, and the price of this fluctuates greatly. There is an alternative material, which is harder to work with (and thus adds time to the project), but it is usually cheaper. The risk response plan for the possibility that plywood sheaving gets to expensive is to switch to the alternative material. The price point that causes the execution of the risk response plan is called the:
C-Risk Response Start-Up Indicator
40. The Project Manager sees a negative CV on an earned value report for a house building project. ?Which off the following conditions might explain negative variance?
A - Rain delays caused the project start date to slip
B - Breakdown of excavation equipment caused the builder to sub-contract the work.
C - Labor strike that stopped work for a week
D - Apprentice plumber was able to do the work of a master plumber
41. Monitoring project progress requires all of the following types of information except:
A - Materials expenditures
B - External labor charges
C - State of project content (scope)
D - Project team time-off plans
42. Over time, an organization accumulates which of the following based on its experiences with past projects:
A - Historical Data
B - Lawsuits
C - Red Ink
D - Disgruntled project clients
43. Identify the best tool for a new project manager on an existing project to quickly learn who is involved with the project:
A - The Project Plan
B - The Project Charter
C - The Project Organization Chart
D - The Project Stakeholder list
44. Before a PM goes back to the stakeholders to request approval to proceed with a proposed solution to get a project back on track, the following should be done:
A - Complete a change control process for the proposed solution
B - Re-baseline the schedule
C - Make sure that the performing organization can support the proposed solution
D - Update the Risk Management Plan
45. When building a Microsoft Project schedule, which feature (if used for every task) allows the duration change of the first of 100 tasks to immediately show the change in duration of the entire project?
A - Task Precedence
B - Resource Identification
C - Task Notes
D - Task Description
46. A project engagement with a 3rd party vendor failed because there was no clear definition of the roles of the vendor's personnel on the project. ?Which of the following could have avoided this situation?
A - Included heavy financial penalties in the contract for failure to perform
B - Included the Project Manager in the contract negotiation process
C - Used a fixed-price contract?
D - Included a bonus if the work was done early
47. A building project client comes to you (the PM) mid-way through a project, claiming that poor up front analysis has led to a large amount of interior finishing work being left out of the project plan. The client cannot change the delivery date, or the specifications for the building infrastructure (building material, dimensions, location, etc), and wants you to accept the change request. After analysis, you tell the client you would be happy to add the change, if the client will:
A - Provide more funding, so the schedule can be "crashed"
B - Agree that no more changes will occur
C - Agree to a follow-on contract after the current contract is done
D - Agree to purchase the interior finishing materials?
48. What project management task must be done before the project schedule task precedence can be established?
A - Activity Definition
B - Activity Sequencing
C - Task Duration
D - Task Indentification
49. A new PM on a project wants to find out who the stakeholders are, and what their involvement is in the project, and what their responsibilities are. ?This can be found in the:
C-Risk Management Plan
D-Change Management Plan
50. A new functional manager calls to tell the PM that someone from the functional team (when a previous functional manager was there) who had worked on the project is now gone. The PM indicates that an additional task is coming up for that functional group. Where can the PM reference to tell the functional manager what the knowledge and skill sets are for the work associated with this task?
A - The Project plan
B - The Work package for the task
C - An email to the previous resource who left
D - The Risk management plan for this area of the project
51. A project stakeholder has looked at the time estimates in the project work packages, and has expressed concern that these are based on a single guess for each task. What estimating method could the PM use to overcome the stakeholders concern?
A - Delphi method
B - Expected Time
C - Historical?
D - Expert Judgement
52. The plan which describes how events which could positively or negatively impact the success of a project will be identified and managed is called the:
A- Risk Mitigation Plan
B -Risk Ranking Plan
C -Risk Management Plan
D -Risk Reward Plan?
53. Three project risks have the following Risk Probability and Impact indicators (respectively) ?
Risk 1 - ?.5, .4
Risk 2 - ?.7, .3
Risk 3 - ?.6, .3
Which of these risks would require the most PM attention?
A - Risk 2
B - Risk 1
C - Risk 3
D - Risk ?1 & 2
54. A new PM takes over a large project with a schedule only half done. ?A major stakeholder calls and needs a same day answer on if its possible to deploy equipment at a certain location in parallel with requirements gathering at another site. ?The PM may be able to answer this question by looking at the:
A - Half done project schedule
B - Risk Management Plan
C - Project Schedule
D - Activity Sequencing Chart
55. A Milestone Task on a schedule has the following unique characteristic
A - Zero day duration
B - Task description of "Milestone Task"
C - It is placed only at the start and end of the whole schedule
D - It is only placed at the start and end of phases between the start and end of the whole schedule
56. Concerns about subjective task completion reporting and the disconnect between spending project money and actually getting project value would lead the Project Manager to choose which of the following project monitoring methods:
A - Variance monitoring
B - Earned Value Analysis
C - PMIS report analysis
D - Weekly project status meetings
57. Consider a large Pharmaceutical development project in flight. Choose the following response that is NOT one of Lewis' responses to a project variance
A - The PM shuts down the project because of severe side effects during the clinical trials
B - The PM and the stakeholders continue the project even though the color of the capsules cannot be blue, which is the planned color
C - The PM skips an optional clinical trial phase to make up time lost during product development
D - The PM is significantly behind schedule, and decides to let the project continue according to current schedule even though the stakeholders have approved extending the schedule.?
58. ?The best way for an organization to manage the change that will inevitably come up on a project is to:
A - Fight it "tooth and nail"
B - Allow any change to be accepted and incorporated into the project
C-Create a change control process that is accepted by all stakeholders, approved by the senior leadership of the organization and used by all involved in the project
D-Ignore it and hope it goes away
59.The process of going from a ?high level project goal, to a WBS, and ultimately to the tasks in the schedule, is called:
A - Decomposition
B - Task Identification
C - Task Sequencing
D - Breakdown Analysis
60.Ultimately, a task is placed on the schedule because:
A - It has to be done, but not in any particular order or at a specific time
B - The Stakeholders voted, and a majority agreed it should be on the schedule
C - It must be tracked to completion
D - All of the above
61.Pick the statement that is false:
A - Resource Leveling smoothes the transition between monthly labor man-hour totals
B - Most Organizations can easily shift people around, so resource leveling is not important.
C - Ideally, there is a ?steady ramp-up in project staff at the beginning of ?the project, and the reverse at the end.?
D - After resource leveling a project, it is not unusual to have to seek additional project funds.?
62.A risk reduction ?mathematical methodology based on statistical analysis of ?the resulting value of a set of equations ( whose variables are altered many times) ?which models a real-work project environment ?is called:
A - Monte Carlo Simulations
B - Zero Sum Game
C - Laws of Diminishing Returns
E-Alternate Outcome Analysis
63.Which of the following questions might a stake-holder or a senior executive NOT ask during a review of a Decision Tree which is used for the basis of a project decision:
A-What is the basis for the estimated ?income levels of the various project alternatives displayed on the decision tree?
B-Can you show me the historical data used to base the probability of a particular decision ?choice?
C-Can you ?reduce the number of decision ?nodes on the Decision Tree (so it is less confusing) ?.?
D-Given that the project is being done in multiple countries, how recent is ?the cost conversion data t o US Dollars??
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